Re: What is personal identifiable data - in your country?

[David Simonsen <david@xxxxxxx>]

Hello all, sorry for only returning this late in the conversation.

On Sep 25, 2009, at 3:29 PM, Peter Schober wrote:
> * David Simonsen <david@xxxxxxx> [2009-09-25 14:55]:
> > The DK version is: ALL data is personal identifiable data.
> > Yes, this is right(!): IP-adresses, roles... - anything!
> > The argument is that it _may_ be related to a person, IF you (aka  
> > God)
> > get a chance to interconnect all (nessecary) data sources.
>
> Have you looked at 95/46/EC?

Yep.

> More to the point, the archives of this list should should have
> reports from Andrew to that regard (i.e. the one concerned with
> pseudonymous identifiers, which also refers to the current
> juristiction wrt the status of IP-adresses. You may know that there
> have been contradicting rulings from two german courts.)

Exactly - there seems to little consensus on the practical (read:  
national), even with 95/46 in place, hence my interest in how this is  
interpreted in the various countries.

> AFAIR the possibility of interconnecting pieces to identity a person
> also differ whether you can do this on your own (i.e. with info
> available from inside your organisation/legal entity; "directly
> person-related" would be the translation from the term in Austria), or
> if you need cooperation of a third party (e.g. an ISP,
> "indirectly ...").
>
> But all this is from blurred memory and IANAL etc.
> -peter

Thanks,
David